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Have I infected my wife or is it a reaction?My wife and I live in seperate countries (she in Siberia, me in England) and do not get to be with each other very often. Recently I was lucky enough to fly out very last minute and, as such, my wife had no time to start taking the pill. Unwilling to use condoms with me, she instead opted to use a spermicidal tablet. We only had three days together and made up for a lot of lost time.
About 3 days after I left she went to see her doctor, admiting to me only for adominal pain. Initially, her doctors could not determine the source of the pain but believed it could be a kidney stone (following an ultrasound). A day or two later she started quesioning me whether I had been having sex wih anyone else as her doctor had told her she may have an STI. For the record, I have not. Insistent she had caught an STI from me she said me that I could carry one without symptoms for years and have passed this onto her. Last June she had an STI check and was clear - we have been married for two years. I immediately took an STI check and was also clear. A day after my results were through, her doctor told her it is definitely an STI and now she has a mycoplasma infection. Here the details get a little sketchy as it was either mycoplasma hominis or mycoplasma genitalia, or both. I later found out that mycoplasma is not tested for in the UK, so had to admit that it could have come from me. Feeling mortified for infecting my wife I looked for a clinic that would test me for mycoplasma but eventually went to see a doctor at Cambridge who was involved in a mycoplasma study and took a swab from my penis to test for non-specific urethritis (also known as non-gonococcal urethritis) which, he said, would prove whether I have any bacterial infection or not. I had none. Given his knowledge of mycoplasmas as an STI, I trust his results. So what has caused my wife's infection? Can I possibly be carrying an infection and it just doesn't show on any tests (as her doctor insists and my dodctor disagrees) or has the spermicide caused the infection (we used about 8 tablets over the three days and she has never used them before)? Or is there another possible answer? I feel it is too much of a coincidence to develop a UTI so soon after we had sex that it must be related. Please help! I am going grazy thinking I could cause this to happen again the next time we meet.
Re: Have I infected my wife or is it a reaction?There is a natural cure for UTI's and is proven clinically to work within 24-48 hours. The product is Clearmax and can be purchased on their site www.clearmax.net. The Proprietary formula has the active ingredient D-Mannose in it and when taken daily UTI's become a thing of the past. When an infection occurs you take 4 capsules 3 times a day for the first 48 hours and then 2 capsules a day until the infection has completely gone. For maintenance you take 2 capsules daily. Can be taken with any other medications as it is a simple sugar and will not interfere with any other
drugs or natural products, Safe for pregnant women and small children.
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